The Double Invocation "Lord, Lord" points to Deity

 

Posted by Artison Rex on Facebook:

The Double Invocation "Lord, Lord" points to Deity

The double invocation "Lord, Lord" (Κύριε, Κύριε in Greek) in the New Testament, when applied to Jesus Christ, is a profound theological claim that deliberately echoes the exclusive reverence reserved for YHWH (יהוה) in the Hebrew Bible. Recall the double invocation "Lord, LORD" (in Hebrew, "Adonai YHWH" or similar) is used in the Old Testament. This is a exclusive and reverent way to address the Most High God. This linguistic and theological parallel is a cornerstone of early Christian Christology, asserting Jesus’ divine identity and authority. Here’s a breakdown of its significance:

1. The Hebrew Bible: "LORD, LORD" as Divine Exclusivity

In the Old Testament, the double invocation "LORD, LORD" (אֲדֹנָי יְהוִה, Adonai YHWH) is used exclusively for God, emphasizing His supreme sovereignty, covenantal faithfulness, and uniqueness:

• Genesis 15:2, 8: Abraham addresses God as "Lord GOD" in prayer.

• Deuteronomy 3:24: Moses cries, "Lord GOD... no god in heaven or on earth like You."

• Ezekiel’s visions (e.g., Ezek. 2:4, 37:3): The prophet repeatedly hears God addressed as "Lord GOD."

This doubling was a mark of reverence for Israel’s covenant God, reinforcing monotheism and distinguishing Him from all other beings. To call anyone else "Lord, Lord" in this way would have been unthinkable for Jews. It's a significant title reserved only for God.

2. The New Testament: Jesus as "Lord, Lord"

In the NT, Jesus is addressed with the same double invocation, directly applying to Him language reserved for YHWH:

• Matthew 7:21-23:

"Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven... Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name?’"

Here, Jesus positions Himself as the divine judge of all humanity—a role exclusively belonging to God (cf. Joel 3:12).

• Luke 6:46:

"Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and not do what I tell you?"

Jesus ties the title to obedience, mirroring the OT link between calling YHWH "Lord" and keeping His commandments (Deut. 6:4-5).

• Romans 10:9-13:

Paul quotes Joel 2:32 ("Everyone who calls on the name of the LORD [YHWH] will be saved") but applies it to Jesus:

"If you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord... you will be saved."

This equates Jesus with YHWH as the object of saving faith.

By applying "Lord, Lord" to Jesus, the NT authors are equating Him with YHWH. This is part of early Christian Christology, affirming Jesus' divine status. The use of the same title bridges the OT understanding of God with the NT revelation of Jesus as God incarnate.

3. Theological Implications: Jesus as YHWH Incarnate

By invoking "Lord, Lord" for Jesus, the NT authors make a radical claim:

• Divine Authority: Jesus exercises prerogatives unique to God—forgiving sins (Mark 2:7), judging the world (John 5:22), and receiving worship (Matt. 28:17).

• Fulfillment of the Shema: The Shema (Deut. 6:4, "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one") is redefined in 1 Corinthians 8:6 to include Jesus:

"For us there is one God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."

• Psalm 110:1: The NT frequently cites this psalm, where YHWH says to the Messiah, "Sit at My right hand" (Matt. 22:44; Acts 2:34-36). Jesus is the "Lord" (κύριος) exalted to divine status.

4. Jewish Context and Early Christian Boldness

For Second Temple Jews, calling Jesus "Lord, Lord" would have been provocative, even blasphemous, unless He were truly divine. The early Church’s use of this title:

• Challenged Jewish Monotheism: By including Jesus in the divine identity (cf. John 1:1, 20:28), Christians redefined—but did not abandon—Jewish monotheism.

• Affirmed Resurrection and Exaltation: After His resurrection, Jesus is declared "Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36), fulfilling the OT hope of YHWH’s reign.

For Jewish Christians, using this title for Jesus would be a radical affirmation of His divinity, considering the strict monotheism of Judaism. This could have been a point of contention, but the NT writers deliberately use this language to make their case.

5. Possible counterarguments or nuances: 

Some might argue that "Lord" (Kyrios) in the NT can sometimes mean just a respectful title, like "sir." But the double invocation and the contexts in which it's used (e.g., judgment scenes, worship) suggest a higher Christology.

Also, connecting this to the Shema in Deuteronomy 6:4, where YHWH is one. Early Christians like Paul in 1 Corinthians 8:6 adapt the Shema to include Jesus, showing that the title "Lord" is now shared between the Father and Jesus.

6. Modern Significance

The double invocation "Lord, Lord" underscores:

• Jesus’ Divinity: He is not merely a teacher or prophet but the incarnate God worthy of the same reverence as YHWH.

• Existential Demand: Like the OT, calling Jesus "Lord" requires total allegiance (Luke 6:46; James 2:19).

The significance of this theological claim for early Christian belief and how it positions Jesus within the divine identity of the God of Israel should inform us to how Jesus Christ was viewed within early Christianity and we should submit to it's implications. 

Conclusion

The NT’s application of "Lord, Lord" to Jesus is a deliberate, subversive theological move that identifies Him with the God of Israel. This linguistic bridge between the Testaments anchors Christian faith in Jewish monotheism while proclaiming Jesus as the embodiment of YHWH’s saving presence—"Emmanuel, God with us" (Matt. 1:23).

Is Jesus the Angel of the Lord in the Hebrew Bible? Dr. Brown Responds to Rabbi Singer

 

Is Jesus the Angel of the Lord in the Hebrew Bible? Dr. Brown Responds to Rabbi Singer

https://youtu.be/p96tFCGKPyY

The Chapter That Silences Every Denial of Christ’s Deity

 

The Chapter That Silences Every Denial of Christ’s Deity

https://youtu.be/64Nn5_GynD8

The Person of Jesus Was the Son of God Before His Earthly Conception and Birth

 

In response to someone denying Jesus was the Son of God before His conception in Mary's womb, I the wrote the following contrary to his claim that Jesus only became the Son of God after His birth to Mary.

The Bible says God sent His SON INTO the world [John 3:17]. He was the Son of the Father BEFORE being conceived in Mary's womb. Isaiah says in 9:6 "For to us a child is born, to us a SON is given..." 

John 3:17 LSB

[17] For God did not SEND THE SON ***INTO*** THE WORLD to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. 

1 John 4:9 LSB

[9] By this the love of God was manifested in us, that God has sent His only begotten SON INTO THE WORLD so that we might live through Him. 

Notice that He was the Son before being sent into the world. 

Jesus was the Father's firstborn before being sent into the world: 

Hebrews 1:6 LSB

[6] And when He again BRINGS THE FIRSTBORN INTO THE WORLD, He says, “And let all the angels of God worship Him.” 

Proverbs 30:4 LSB

[4] Who has ascended into heaven and descended? Who has gathered the wind in His fists? Who has wrapped the waters in His garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? WHAT IS HIS NAME? AND WHAT IS HIS SON ’s NAME? Surely you know! 

Proverbs 30:4 reveals God had a Son in the Old Testament. The verse asks what is God's name, and what is His Son's name. Meaning can you FULLY grasp God's nature, or the nature of His Son? The answer to the rhetorical question is that while you can APPREHEND God truly, no one can COMPREHEND God [and His nature] exhaustively. Nor that of His Son [cf. Matt. 11:17; Luke 10:22]. The word "name" can mean nature, as in Ps. 9:10, where to know God's name is to know His faithful and trustworthy nature. 

Psalms 9:10 LSB

[10] And those who know Your name will put their trust in You, For You, O Yahweh, have not forsaken those who seek You. 

Hebrews 10:5 LSB

[5] Therefore, when He comes into the world, He says, “Sacrifice and offering You have not desired, BUT A BODY YOU HAVE PREPARED FOR ME; 

Hebrews 10:5 shows Jesus' conscious personal preexistence. 

Galatians 4:4 LSB

[4] But when the fullness of the time came, God SENT FORTH HIS SON, born of a woman, born under the Law, 

Hebrews 1:2 LSB

[2] in these last days spoke to us in His SON, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds, 

Hebrews 7:3 LSB

[3] Without father, without mother, without genealogy, HAVING NEITHER BEGINNING OF DAYS NOR END OF LIFE, but made like the Son of God, he remains a priest continually.

Notice it doesn't say that Jesus was like Melchizedek. Rather, that Melchizedek was like the Son of God who has no beginning of days or end of life.

//And please get this clear...God who is OMNISCIENT, OMNIPOTENT AND OMNIPRESENT...why would he WALK// 

Read Gen. 3:8 AGAIN It EXPLICITLY says Adam and Eve heard the sound/voice of Yahweh God walking in the garden. Yahweh is portrayed as taking on human form many times in the Old Testament. See for example Gen. chapters 18-19. There I believe it was the pre-incarnate Jesus.