Some Unitarians Pray to Jesus

 

As a Trinitarian myself, I find it a bit humorous that it's a long standing debate among various Unitarian factions and sects as to whether it is permissible and/or required to pray to Jesus, or whether it is absolutely forbidden. This is one of the areas in versions of Unitarianism which accept the New Testament that reveals their instability.

A popular Unitarian Bible translation and commentary is the Revised English Version. In one of their appendices they argue that Jesus can be prayed to. Here is the link:

Appendix 15. Can We Pray to Jesus?

Another area of instability is whether Jesus is or isn't to be worshipped. The Jehovah's Witnesses have flip flopped on this issue. The following is taken from this webpage HERE. 

//Worship of Jesus is OK?

1879 "His position is contrasted with men and angels, as he is Lord of both, having 'all power in heaven and earth'. Hence it is said, 'Let all of the angels of God worship him' [that must included Michael, the chief angel, hence Michael is not the Son of God] and the reason is, because he has 'by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.'" (C.T. Russell, Watchtower Nov. 1879, bracketed comment in the original)

1880 "He was the object of unreproved worship even when a babe, by the wise men who came to see the new-born king... He never reproved any for acts of worship offered to Himself... Had Christ not been more than man the same reason would have prevented Him from receiving worship." (Watchtower Reprints, 1, Oct., 1880, p. 144).

1898 "Question... Was he really worshipped, or is the translation faulty? Answer. Yes, we believe our Lord while on earth was really worshipped, and properly so... It was proper for our Lord to receive worship..." (Watchtower Reprints, 111, July 15, 1898, p. 2337).

1915 "As the special messenger of the Covenant, whom the Father had sanctified and sent into the world to redeem the world, and whom the Father honored in every manner, testifying, 'This is my beloved son, in whom I am well pleased' - it was eminently proper that all who beheld his glory, as the glory of an Only Begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth, should reverence him, hear him, obey him, and worship him - do him homage - as the representative of the Father." (At-One-Ment Between God And Man, 1899; 1915 ed.; p. 134)

1945 "Since Jehovah God now reigns as King by means of his capital organization Zion, then whosoever would worship him must also bow down to Jehovah's Chief One in that organization, namely Christ Jesus, his co-regent on the throne of The Theocracy." (Watchtower, Oct 15, 1945)

1945 "The purposes of this Society are: ... public Christian worship of Almighty God and Jesus Christ; to arrange for and hold local and world-wide assemblies for such worship..." (Charter of the Watchtower Society of Pennsylvania, Article II, Feb 27, 1945 [the 1969 Yearbook quotes Article II of the Charter, "and for public Christian worship of Almighty God...." leaving off the original requirement to worship Jesus])

1970 "But when He again brings his First-born into the inhabited earth, he says: 'And let all God's angels worship him' Hebrews 1:6." (New World Translation, 1950, 1961, 1970 editions, [The NWT revised 1971 edition was changed to read, "do obeisance to" rather than "worship"])//

Captures of The King James Only Controversy on John 14:14

 

This blog is a supplement to my blog here: The Trinity demonstrated from The Lord's Prayer

 

The following captures are from James White's book, The King James Only Controversy. Just click on the pictures then open them in another browser tab for a very large legible close up version.

The Trinity demonstrated from The Lord's Prayer

 

There are many ways to argue for the Trinity. Some are more direct than others [as I've documented on my blog]. Here's an indirect way to argue for the deity of Christ and of the Holy Spirit from the Lord's Prayer. According to the Bible [sorry my Catholic friends], prayer is something you may only direct toward God who alone can hear and answer those prayers in that intimate relationship between the Creator and His creatures. In this article I'll go through the the Lord's Prayer and show how its petitions can be fulfilled in and by Christ and the Holy Spirit as well. I'll go through the Lord's Prayer twice and show how it applies to Christ and then later to the Holy Spirit. If the Lord's Prayer can also be applied in some sense to the Son and Spirit, then that's an indirect way of supporting the fully deity of the Son and Spirit. Often I'll list a number of verses as prooftexts. The lists aren't meant to be exhaustive. I could go on listing more verses, but a sample of verses should suffice.

The first point that needs to be recognized is that we can pray to the Son. Jesus said "If you ask ME anything in my Name I will do it" [John 14:12-14*]. The critical text has the word "Me" used by Jesus. Though, the Textus Receptus do not. I'm not sure but there might be some manuscripts in the Majority Text that include "Me." But modern critical texts do like the Nestle-Aland text and the United Bible Societies text. See this blog HERE for more details on the Greek of John 14:14. Paul prayed to Jesus for his thorn in the flesh to be removed [1 Cor. 12]. The Apostles prayed to the Lord to determine who would replace Judas [Acts 1:24]. The fact that Jesus can and ought to be prayed to should settle the issue of His full Deity. But I want to go further and show how the Lord's Prayer can also be applied to Jesus.

"Our Father who is in heaven, hallowed be your Name..."

In Trinitarianism the person of the Father is not the Son, nor is the person of the Son the Father. Within the relations of the persons of the Trinity, the Father begets, the Son is begotten, and the Holy Spirit proceeds. Yet, there are other senses in which we can call the Son "Father":

1. in that the Son is Creator as the Father is Creator. The Son is our ontological "Father" in that sense of also being Creator [Note how Eccl. 12:1 literally has "Creators" and Isa. 54:5 has "Fathers" and "Husbands"].

2. The Son is the "Everlasting Father" [or better translated] "Father of Eternity." Meaning, the Messiah possesses the attribute of eternality.

3. The Son is our "Father" redemptively. Jesus Himself referred to someone who He forgave [and eventually healed] "[my] son" in Matt. 9:2. Jesus wasn't afraid of calling someone "son" in that verse, as if it would deprive God the Father of any honor or glory.

"...who is in heaven..."

Jesus is in heaven. A textual variant in in John 3:13 implies there is a sense in which Jesus has always been in heaven [cf. the KJV which adds "which is in heaven"]. Even if we reject this doubitable variant, Jesus is said to be in the bosom of the Father [John 1:18]. Jesus is taught to be omnipresent. For example, He is said to fill "all in all" in Eph. 1:23. And even in heaven, Jesus is still with us to the very end of the Age [Matt. 28:20]. In fact, where two or three are gathered in Jesus' name, there He is among them [Matt. 18:20]. John 3:31 says Jesus is "above all" while at the same time having come to earth. It's as if Jesus is both in heaven and on earth simultaneously, even though there is a sense in which Jesus came to earth in a special way. This is all consistent with the Trinitarian understanding of the incarnation. Omnipresence implies the ability to be in multiple "places" at once. More could be said but that should suffice. We need to move along because there's much more in the Lord's Prayer.

"...hallowed be your Name..."

Jesus' name is hallowed in the use of the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 which is an act of worship. Notice how it doesn't say in the "nameS" plural, but in the "name" singular. Then it goes on to refer to the Father, Son and Spirit. By using the singular, Matthew unites all three as sharing the divine name, nature, attributes, and glory. That's why it's perfectly reasonable to invoke all three persons in baptism as an act of worship. If the Son and Spirit weren't fully God, then it would be blasphemous to so closely associate the names of the Son and Spirit with that of the Father, whose name is YHWH. But if the Son and Spirit share that Name, then it all makes perfect sense. Notice too that it uses the definite article for each person. "in the Name of THE Father and of THE So, and of THE Holy Spirit." Without the definite article, one might conclude that some kind of Modalism or Oneness understanding of the triad is true. But by using the definite article for each person, it affirms the genuine personal distinctions of all three. Thus, being more consistent with Trinitarianism, than with Modalism. While at the same time using the singular "Name" rather than "Names" so as to exclude other types of Unitarianism like Semi-Arianism, Arianism etc. Jesus also said we are to honor the Son just as we honor the Father [John 5:23; 1 Pet. 3:15; Heb. 3:3]. Then there are doxologies to Christ which show we ought to hallow the Son's name. See for example my blogpost here:

Doxologies to Christ
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/05/doxologies-to-christ.html

Remember too that the Holy Spirit is invoked in adoring worship in the Pauline benediction of 2 Cor. 13:14. Where Paul prays, "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all." I could go on, but we need to move along.

"...Your Kingdom Come..."

We know that the Kingdom of the Father is also the Kingdom of the Son. This shouldn't be controversial. See for example,  2 Pet. 1:11; Dan. 7:13-14; Heb. 1:8 etc. There are also places where Jesus is expected to "Come." With the coming of the King simultaneously comes the Kingdom as well. Again, this shouldn't be controversial. See for example, Matt. 16:28; 1 Cor. 15:23; 1 Thess. 2:19; 3:13; 4:15; 5:23 etc.

Matt. 16:28 Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man COMING in HIS KINGDOM."

"...Your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven..."

The will of Jesus is also sovereign according to the New Testament and ought to be desired, prayed for and submitted to as the Father's will is.

James 4:15 Instead you ought to say, "If the Lord wills, we will live and do this or that."

1 Cor. 4:19 But I will come to you soon, if the Lord wills, and I will find out not the talk of these arrogant people but their power.-

1 Cor. 16:7 For I do not want to see you now just in passing. I hope to spend some time with you, if the Lord permits.

Acts 21:13 Then Paul answered, "What are you doing, weeping and breaking my heart? For I am ready not only to be imprisoned but even to die in Jerusalem for the name of the Lord Jesus."14 And since he would not be persuaded, we ceased and said, "Let the will of the Lord be done."

See more on this topic in my blogpost here:

Lord [Jesus Christ] Willing? God's Will and Christ's Will
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/05/lord-jesus-christ-willing-gods-will-and.html

"...Give us this day our daily bread..."

This "bread" refers to both spiritual/heavenly and material/earthly necessities. Jesus Himself said, that HE HIMSELF is the Bread that comes down from heaven and gives people eternal life [John 6:22ff.]. Jesus also multiplied literal physical bread when He miraculously multiplied bread for 5,000 people and then again for 4,000. Jesus even told Peter how to find a coin in a fish's mouth to pay his and Jesus' taxes. So, Jesus can literally make provision for the people of God.

"...And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors..."

We know from the Gospels that Jesus could forgive sins. So, this shouldn't be controversial and therefore doesn't need many prooftexts. One should suffice:

Mark 2:7    "Why does this man speak like that? He is blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?"
8    And immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they thus questioned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you question these things in your hearts?
9    Which is easier, to say to the paralytic, 'Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, 'Rise, take up your bed and walk'?
10    But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins"---he said to the paralytic---
11    "I say to you, rise, pick up your bed, and go home."

"...And lead us not into temptation..."

Jesus is repeatedly taught to be the Shepherd of God's people. Shepherds lead their flock. So, Jesus leading people shouldn't be controversial [cf. John 10:11, 14, 16; Heb. 13:20; 1 Pet. 2:25; 5:4;

John 10:11 I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.

Rev. 7:For the Lamb in the midst of the throne will be their shepherd, and HE WILL GUIDE them to springs of living water, and God will wipe away every tear from their eyes."

1 Thess. 3:11 Now may our God and Father himself, and our Lord Jesus, DIRECT our way to you,

In fact, the use of the singular verb in 1 Thess. 3:11 probably has theological significance suggesting the equality and unity of the Father and Son. See the commentaries here:
https://biblehub.com/commentaries/1_thessalonians/3-11.htm

"But deliver us from evil [or the evil one]..."

By "evil" it likely refers to all sorts of evils and calamities, as well as evil spirits, including and especially the Devil. Jesus is clearly taught to be our deliverer [cf. Titus 2:13-14; Matt. 1:23; Gal. 1:4 etc.]. We know Jesus delivered Peter from sinking into the lake when Peter cried out for help [Matt. 14:22-32].

2 Tim. 4:18 And the Lord will DELIVER ME from every evil work and preserve me for His heavenly kingdom. To Him be glory forever and ever. Amen!

Matt. 6:13b KJV "...For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen."
Matt. 6:13b NKJV "...For Yours is the kingdom and the power and the glory forever. Amen."

This famous ending is a textual variant that is considered by many scholars not to be original. Though, because of its antiquity and widespread use in Christian history, it is included in most modern Bible translations either as a footnote, or somehow within the main text, but identified in some way as uncertain. For example, being placed in brackets. Assuming for the sake argument that the phrase is authentic, or at least ought to be regarded AS IF authentic, IT TOO applies to Jesus. The last prooftext I gave in the previous segment of the Lord's Prayer is an example. Let me quote it again.

2 Tim. 4:18 And the Lord will deliver me from every evil work and preserve me for His heavenly kingdom. TO HIM BE GLORY FOREVER AND EVER. Amen!

That passage is almost universally interpreted by seasoned commentators as referring to Jesus as the "Lord" rather than the Father. See also my blogpost on doxologies to Jesus here:

Doxologies to Christ
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/05/doxologies-to-christ.html

As well as my blogpost on Rom. 9:5 here:

Romans 9:5 and Christ's Full Deity
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/05/romans-95-and-christs-deity.html

Some might complain that if the doctrine of the Trinity is true, then the Lord's Prayer should also apply to the Holy Spirit. It can. But even if it couldn't that wouldn't undermine the doctrine of the Trinity, because the doctrine also entails the doctrine of perichoresis [AKA circumincession] whereby the life and work of each person of the Trinity is involved and intricately intertwined with the others. This is why the Spirit of the Lord Jesus who is the Son of the Father, is also the same Spirit of the Father.

See my blogpost here:

The Spirit of Jesus
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/09/the-spirit-of-jesus.html

---

So, let's go through the Lord's Prayer and see if it can also apply to the Holy Spirit. I'll do this quickly because some of the same arguments I used for Jesus can be used for the Holy Spirit.

The first thing I want to point out is that the Holy Spirit can be prayed to. If He can be prayed to, then He is fully God as well. I've argued this in my blogpost here:

Praying to and Worshipping the Holy Spirit
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/08/praying-to-and-worshipping-holy-spirit.html

I'll skip repeating myself and go directly to the Lord's Prayer. One can read the blogpost above for why the Holy Spirit can be prayed to.

"Our Father who is in heaven, hallowed be your Name..."

The Holy Spirit is omnipresent, and therefore is also in heaven.

Ps. 139:7    Where shall I go from your Spirit? Or where shall I flee from your presence?
8    If I ascend to heaven, you are there! If I make my bed in Sheol, you are there!

The Holy Spirit's name is to be hallowed, as I argued above with the Father and Jesus by appealing to the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 and the Pauline benediction in 2 Cor. 13:14.

"...Your Kingdom Come..."

Is the Holy Spirit associated with the Kingdom of God? Yes.

Matt. 12:28 But if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.

Rom. 14:17 For the kingdom of God is not a matter of eating and drinking but of righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit.

John 3:5 Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

"...Your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven..."

Is the will of the Holy Spirit involved in the advancement of the Kingdom? Yes.

Acts 13:2    While they were worshiping the Lord and fasting, the Holy Spirit said, "Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them."

1 Cor. 12:11 All these are empowered by one and the same Spirit, who apportions to each one individually as he wills.

"...Give us this day our daily bread..."

Does the Holy Spirit give us our bread [i.e. necessities]? Yes, because every blessing from the Father through the Son is applied and made real in our experience in the Holy Spirit. That's a repeated teaching in the New Testament that shouldn't need prooftexting. Besides, 1 Cor. 12:11 teaches that spiritual gifts come from the Holy Spirit as He wills, and Act 13:2 teaches the Holy Spirit can speak and answer prayer [in that case for direction, guidance, appointment and commission]. So, it follows one can pray to the Holy Spirit for provisions. If the Holy Spirit can give the higher spiritual gifts, then He can also give the lower mundane/earthly gifts of material blessings. The parallels of Matt. 7:11 and Luke 11:13 imply that in having the Holy Spirit you have–in principle–every other good thing you might ever need, because all blessings flow from the Father, through the Son in and by the Holy Spirit.

Matt. 7:11 If you then, who are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father who is in heaven give good things to those who ask him!

Luke 11:13 If you then, who are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will the heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!"

"...And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors..."

Is forgiveness of sin associated with the Holy Spirit? Yes.

Titus 3:4    But when the goodness and loving kindness of God our Savior appeared,
5    he saved us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, but according to his own mercy, by the WASHING OF REGENERATION AND RENEWAL OF THE Holy Spirit 6 whom he poured out on us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior,

Acts 2:38    And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

"...And lead us not into temptation..."

Is the Holy Spirit involved into leading? Yes. Even Jesus WAS lead into temptation/testing by the Holy Spirit [Matt. 4:1; Luke 4:1-2]. The Holy Spirit also leads and guides

Rom. 8:14 For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God.

Gal. 5:18    But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

"But deliver us from evil [or the evil one]..."

Is the Holy Spirit associated with deliverance, salvation, rescue? To ask the question is to answer it. The Father and the Son are often described as doing those things by the Spirit. For example, Jesus' earthly ministry is described as empowered by the Holy Spirit. Jesus quoting Isa. 61 says in Luke:

Luke 4:8    The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, Because he anointed me to preach good tidings to the poor: He hath sent me to proclaim release to the captives, And recovering of sight to the blind, To set at liberty them that are bruised,
19    To proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord.

Matt. 6:13b KJV "...For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen."

I've already mentioned how this is a dubitable textual variant. But assuming ad arguendo that it's authentic, it also applies to the Holy Spirit. What I said above about the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 and of the the Pauline benediction in 2 Cor. 13:14 apply here too to the Holy Spirit. See also my blogposts here:

All Three Persons of the Trinity Mentioned In Scripture (Directly or Indirectly)
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/09/all-three-persons-of-trinity-mentioned.html 

 The Full Deity of the Holy Spirit
https://trinitynotes.blogspot.com/2014/08/the-full-deity-of-holy-spirit.html

Praying to and Worshipping the Holy Spirit

Years ago I was virtually stumped by the question, "What Biblical evidence is there that we can pray to the Holy Spirit?" When asked by Unitarians like Jehovah's Witnesses, the implication is that if there's no Biblical encouragement to pray to the Holy Spirit, we have no warrant to do so. If we have no warrant, then maybe it's illegitimate and impermissible to do so. If we cannot or may not pray to the Holy Spirit, then it would appear that the Holy Spirit can't be God, even if the Holy Spirit were personal. 

Well, normally the Bible presents the Holy Spirit as 1. the one who helps Christians to pray, and 2. who also prays/intercedes for Christians (as Christ who is God also does). Therefore, it's only natural for there to be few (if any) passages that would teach or suggest we can pray to the Holy Spirit. His purpose in creation and redemption is to glorify the Son and by so doing it redounds to the glory of the Father. The Spirit bears witness of Jesus [John 15:26] and glorifies Jesus [John 16:14]. But the Holy Spirit is prayed to and worshipped.

But even if there weren't any Biblical data supporting prayer to the Holy Spirit, that would not itself invalidate the practice. Since, if there's sufficient evidence elsewhere that imply or teach (directly or indirectly) that the Holy Spirit is God, then it would naturally seem to be permissible. Since, by definition, God is worthy of our prayer. Moreover, it's a positive fact that there is no prohibition to pray to the Holy Spirit unlike the Scriptural prohibitions regarding our licit and illicit interaction with angels.

Having said the above, I nevertheless think the following argument suggests we can pray to the Holy Spirit. According to Biblical teaching, while we human beings are on earth (i.e. before our deaths) we're not allowed to initiate communication with the spirits of dead human beings or with angels. The Old Testament prohibits necromancy and the book of Colossians prohibits a preoccupation with or worship of angels (e.g. Col. 2:18). Instead, the book of Colossians encourages us to focus on Christ as God and as the all sufficient atonement and mediator between humanity and the Father. This entails that if we're going to initiate any form of spiritual communication with unseen spirits it should only be toward God. Specifically, to the Father through the Son since Christ is the sole mediator between God and man. Christ being both God and man (Col. 1:29; 2:9).  Though, there is evidence in the New Testament of prayers offered to Christ. But that's a different topic addressed in other blogposts.

The only exception to the above prohibition is that we are allowed to communicate with angels if the angels initiate the communication with us themselves. But only with God's permission, sanction or commission. Even then, any claimed angel of God must be tested by Scripture since the Bible also teaches that demons can disguise themselves as God's holy and good angels (2 Cor. 11:14). I say this as a continuationists. But if one were a cessationist, then he too would have to admit that at least during the lives of the Apostles the rule I described above applied. 

Yet, the fact that the Bible encourages us to have fellowship with the Holy Spirit suggests that the Holy Spirit is fully God since, as argued above, we're never to initiate fellowship with any other immaterial spirit being or personality (angelic or human). Moreover, fellowship normally entails communication. What other kind of communication then would that be than that of prayer? 

Also, if the Holy Spirit was merely an impersonal means by which we communicate with God, analogous to a telephone or electronic impulses, then we wouldn't be able to fellowship with it.

Revelation 5:6 says that the seven eyes of the Lamb are the seven spirits (or Spirits) of God sent out into all the earth. The fact that Rev. 1:4-5 says that grace and peace is bestowed not only by the Father and Son, but also "from the seven spirits who are before his throne" is consistent with the Holy Spirit being a divine and personal dispenser of grace and peace. Notice how the seven S/spirits are closely attached to or associated with God (the Father) and the Lamb (Son). [cf. Rev. 3:1; 4:5. As well as Rev. 22:1 where the river–signifying the Holy Spirit—flows from the throne.]

Here are some of the New Testament passages that encourage us to fellowship with the Holy Spirit.

Therefore if there is any encouragement in Christ, if there is any consolation of love, if there is any fellowship of the Spirit, if any affection and compassion,- Phil. 2:1 NASB

The ESV uses the phrase "participation in the Spirit." However, the NASB, ASV, NKJV (et al.) use the phrase "fellowship of the Spirit."

The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all.- 2 Cor. 13:14

Similar to the question above, I've been asked whether there's Biblical evidence for worshipping the Holy Spirit. The implication being that if there's no Biblical encouragement to worship the Holy Spirit, we have no warrant to do so. If we have no warrant, then maybe it's illegitimate and impermissible to do. Yet, if the Holy Spirit is God, then it should be licit (yes, even incumbent on us) to worship the Holy Spirit. And similar to the answer I gave above, if there's sufficient Biblical evidence to demonstrate that the Holy Spirit is fully God, then regardless of whether there's any direct permission or admonition to worship the Holy Spirit, it would still be legitimate and licit.

The opposite of worship is blasphemy. Yet the New Testament talks about blaspheming the Holy Spirit. That suggests 1. the Holy Spirit can and should be worshipped, and therefore 2. the full deity of the Holy Spirit. How so? Well, we have to ask "What is blasphemy?" It is any reviling of God's name or person, or any affront to His majesty or authority. Or anything that takes away from the proper reverence and worship that God alone is rightly due.

 As I noted in another blog:

 31 Therefore I tell you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven people, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven.32 And whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.- Matt. 12:31-32

Blasphemy, therefore is normally in reference to God. So, the first reference to blasphemy in the passage refers to God the Father. Yet, interestingly the passages also talks about blasphemy against the Holy Spirit. This would suggest that the Holy Spirit is God since it makes no sense blaspheming an impersonal force. Notice too that Jesus clusters criticisms against Himself in conjunction with blasphemy against the Father and the Holy Spirit. It may be claimed that a word against Jesus doesn't necessarily imply that it's blasphemy since it can be forgiven; therefore Jesus isn't necessarily God. However, using that logic, the Father isn't God either since blasphemy against the Father can be forgiven as well. Moreover, the fact that blasphemy against the Father and the Son can be forgiven while the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit can't, strongly suggests the full deity of the Holy Spirit since it makes no sense for it to be more severe to blaspheme the Holy Spirit above God the Father if the Holy Spirit isn't God. Analogously, that would be like saying insulting the electricity and gasoline of your father's prized Porsche is worse than insulting your father directly.

Do you not know that you are God's temple and that God's Spirit dwells in you?- 1 Cor. 3:16

Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, whom you have from God? You are not your own,- 1 Cor. 6:19

The fact that Christians are temples of the Holy Spirit strongly suggests that the Holy Spirit is God. For, as Thomas Aquinas wrote long ago, "Now, to have a temple is God's prerogative." Moreover, based on the revelation of the Old Testament the Jewish understanding was that it was God who dwelt and lived in the tabernacle in the wilderness and in the Temple building in Jerusalem. This God is the same God whom they were required to worship. Hence, the Holy Spirit can be worshipped and is fully God.

And one called to another and said: "Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!"- Isa. 6:3

....."Holy, holy, holy, is the Lord God Almighty, who was and is and is to come!"- Rev. 4:8b

If the triple use of the word "holy" hints at the reality of the Trinity, then the Holy Spirit is being worshipped in the triple use of the word along with the Father and the Son.

Similarly, if the Aaronic Blessing hints at the Trinity (as I've shown HERE), then the Holy Spirit is invoked in prayer and worship along with the Father and the Son.

The book of Revelation's use of the phrase "was, and is, and is to come" (and its variations). Revelation 1:4 clearly speaks of the Father because Christ is referred to in the next verse. However, it might be the case that sometimes the phrase hints at the Trinity rather than a specific person of the Trinity. If it does sometimes hint at and make reference to the Trinity; then I personally suspect the following in those instances:

1. The "was" refers to the Father because He is the first person of the Trinity (especially if there's any truth to the doctrines of the eternal generation/filiation of the Son, and eternal procession/spiration of the Holy Spirit).

2. The "is" refers to the Holy Spirit who is the true "vicar of Christ" (contrary to Papal claims) who takes the place of Christ while He is in heaven. This "dispensation" and Era or Age being especially that of the Holy Spirit as He convicts the world, regenerates the elect, sanctifies the saints, and leads believers into ever increasing truth. The church, along with the Holy Spirit who "arrived" on earth at Pentecost, call for the the Lord Jesus to "come" and return to earth. "And the Spirit and the bride say, Come." (Rev. 22:17a). So, it's appropriate for the Holy Spirit to be the one who "is."

3. The "is to come" refers to Christ who is the one especially expected to arrive in the eschaton at His second Advent. The Church eagerly anticipates His return (Rev. 22:20).

By the way, it's often pointed out that the use of triples in the above passages doesn't necessarily allude to the Trinity since the same grammatical repetition is used of other things in the Old Testament and in the Hebrew language in general. That's true. But we have to ask ourselves why three rather than two or four or five is the number of times to be used for the full, complete and highest degree of absolute emphasis? Might it be that God Himself implanted, directly or indirectly by His providence, in the historical development of the languages and Semitic cultures of that time a subconscious echoing knowledge and understanding of the Absolute, the ultimate reality? That is, of the reality of  God as a Trinity? Might it be the other way around? That rather than the use of triples in reference to God MERELY being a hinting at and pointing toward the Trinity, might it also ultimately be the case that the Trinity itself is the very source and grounding of that linguistic feature found in various Semitic cultures?

It's interesting that the Shema refers to God three times regardless of how one translates it ¹.

1. Yahweh (is) our God, Yahweh alone.
2. Yahweh our God (is) one Yahweh.
3. Yahweh our God, Yahweh (is) one.
4. Yahweh (is) our God, Yahweh (is) one.
5. Our one God, (is) Yahweh, Yahweh.

The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit be with you all. Amen.- 2 Cor. 13:14

Wayne Jackson in his article (also linked below) points out that 2 Cor. 13:14 is a benediction, and argues for why it's also a prayer. If it is both a benediction and prayer [and invocation], then that implies prayer to and worship of the Holy Spirit along with the Father and Son. Jackson's article is well worth reading.

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Update as of May. 12, 2025

I've been wanting to write something like the following for a few years now, but I kept forgetting.

A few years back I heard Anthony Rogers point out something that I didn't realize until he said it. That the the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 is an act of worship and prayer because it is invoking each person of the Trinity in this most sacred and introductory rite into the Christian religion. A similar thing could be said of Paul's continuing benediction in 2 Cor. 13:14. Both of which have echos of the Aaronic Blessing which also invokes Yahweh three times for His blessings. That triple invocation is suggestive of the Trinity.

Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,- Matt. 28:19

The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all.- 2 Cor. 13:14

23    "Speak to Aaron and his sons, saying, Thus you shall bless the people of Israel: you shall say to them,
24    The LORD bless you and keep you;
25    the LORD make his face to shine upon you and be gracious to you;
26    the LORD lift up his countenance upon you and give you peace.
27    "So shall they put my name upon the people of Israel, and I will bless them."- Num. 6:23-27

Moreover, the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 speaks about baptizing in the [singular] Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Had it said "nameS" [plural], then it might have suggested polytheism. But it's in the singular. And seems to allude to the tetragrammaton, the divine name of YHWH. The phrase "the Name" was used even as early as Lev. 24:11 to be a title or metonym for Yahweh.

Leviticus 24:11 ESV

[11] and the Israelite woman’s son blasphemed the Name, and cursed. Then they brought him to Moses. His mother’s name was Shelomith, the daughter of Dibri, of the tribe of Dan.

That's because "name" can have the connotation of "nature" or "character" or "attributes." This is why Israelites were careful with the names they gave their children. The meanings of the names expressed their nature or the nature they would want for their children. This is also how many passages in the Old Testament use the word "Name" to refer to Yahweh. For example:

Psalm 9:10 ESV

[10] And those who know your name put their trust in you, for you, O Lord, have not forsaken those who seek you.

Proverbs 30:4 ESV

[4] Who has ascended to heaven and come down? Who has gathered the wind in his fists? Who has wrapped up the waters in a garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and what is his son’s name? Surely you know!

When it says those who know God's name, it means those who know God's nature. It's precisely because they know that God's nature is graciousness and merciful that they trust and hope in God. And when Prov. 30:4 asks "what is His name?" it alluding the fact that while God's nature/character/attributes can be truly apprehended [and therefore known in a limited way], it cannot be exhaustively comprehended. Its further question, "and what is his son’s name?," is prophetic in that it alludes to Jesus having the same nature as the Father.

So when the baptismal formula invokes in worship THE NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, it includes into the divine identity and the divine nature all three persons of the Trinity. The the triple repetition of the use of the definite article precludes Sabellianism/Modalism. It doesn't say "in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit" [leaving out the definite articles]. But rather it says, "in the name of THE Father and of THE Son and of THE Holy Spirit."

Therefore the baptismal formula implicitly [if not explicitly] invokes, worships and prays to the Holy Spirit [along with the Father and the Son]. Same with the benediction of 2 Cor. 13:14.

See also my blogposts:

-All Three Persons of the Trinity Mentioned In Scripture (Directly or Indirectly)

-The Aaronic Blessing Is Highly Suggestive of the Doctrine of the Trinity

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 See the following link for the case for the full deity of the Holy Spirit:

The Full Deity of the Holy Spirit

Also see Is the Holy Spirit Worthy of Worship? by Wayne Jackson