Wednesday, October 22, 2025

The Double Invocation "Lord, Lord" points to Deity

 

Posted by Artison Rex on Facebook:


The Double Invocation "Lord, Lord" points to Deity

The double invocation "Lord, Lord" (Κύριε, Κύριε in Greek) in the New Testament, when applied to Jesus Christ, is a profound theological claim that deliberately echoes the exclusive reverence reserved for YHWH (יהוה) in the Hebrew Bible. Recall the double invocation "Lord, LORD" (in Hebrew, "Adonai YHWH" or similar) is used in the Old Testament. This is a exclusive and reverent way to address the Most High God. This linguistic and theological parallel is a cornerstone of early Christian Christology, asserting Jesus’ divine identity and authority. Here’s a breakdown of its significance:


1. The Hebrew Bible: "LORD, LORD" as Divine Exclusivity


In the Old Testament, the double invocation "LORD, LORD" (אֲדֹנָי יְהוִה, Adonai YHWH) is used exclusively for God, emphasizing His supreme sovereignty, covenantal faithfulness, and uniqueness:

• Genesis 15:2, 8: Abraham addresses God as "Lord GOD" in prayer.

• Deuteronomy 3:24: Moses cries, "Lord GOD... no god in heaven or on earth like You."

• Ezekiel’s visions (e.g., Ezek. 2:4, 37:3): The prophet repeatedly hears God addressed as "Lord GOD."


This doubling was a mark of reverence for Israel’s covenant God, reinforcing monotheism and distinguishing Him from all other beings. To call anyone else "Lord, Lord" in this way would have been unthinkable for Jews. It's a significant title reserved only for God.


2. The New Testament: Jesus as "Lord, Lord"


In the NT, Jesus is addressed with the same double invocation, directly applying to Him language reserved for YHWH:

• Matthew 7:21-23:

"Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven... Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name?’"

Here, Jesus positions Himself as the divine judge of all humanity—a role exclusively belonging to God (cf. Joel 3:12).

• Luke 6:46:

"Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and not do what I tell you?"

Jesus ties the title to obedience, mirroring the OT link between calling YHWH "Lord" and keeping His commandments (Deut. 6:4-5).

• Romans 10:9-13:

Paul quotes Joel 2:32 ("Everyone who calls on the name of the LORD [YHWH] will be saved") but applies it to Jesus:

"If you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord... you will be saved."

This equates Jesus with YHWH as the object of saving faith.


By applying "Lord, Lord" to Jesus, the NT authors are equating Him with YHWH. This is part of early Christian Christology, affirming Jesus' divine status. The use of the same title bridges the OT understanding of God with the NT revelation of Jesus as God incarnate.


3. Theological Implications: Jesus as YHWH Incarnate


By invoking "Lord, Lord" for Jesus, the NT authors make a radical claim:

• Divine Authority: Jesus exercises prerogatives unique to God—forgiving sins (Mark 2:7), judging the world (John 5:22), and receiving worship (Matt. 28:17).

• Fulfillment of the Shema: The Shema (Deut. 6:4, "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one") is redefined in 1 Corinthians 8:6 to include Jesus:

"For us there is one God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."

• Psalm 110:1: The NT frequently cites this psalm, where YHWH says to the Messiah, "Sit at My right hand" (Matt. 22:44; Acts 2:34-36). Jesus is the "Lord" (κύριος) exalted to divine status.


4. Jewish Context and Early Christian Boldness


For Second Temple Jews, calling Jesus "Lord, Lord" would have been provocative, even blasphemous, unless He were truly divine. The early Church’s use of this title:

• Challenged Jewish Monotheism: By including Jesus in the divine identity (cf. John 1:1, 20:28), Christians redefined—but did not abandon—Jewish monotheism.

• Affirmed Resurrection and Exaltation: After His resurrection, Jesus is declared "Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36), fulfilling the OT hope of YHWH’s reign.

For Jewish Christians, using this title for Jesus would be a radical affirmation of His divinity, considering the strict monotheism of Judaism. This could have been a point of contention, but the NT writers deliberately use this language to make their case.


5. Possible counterarguments or nuances: 


Some might argue that "Lord" (Kyrios) in the NT can sometimes mean just a respectful title, like "sir." But the double invocation and the contexts in which it's used (e.g., judgment scenes, worship) suggest a higher Christology.


Also, connecting this to the Shema in Deuteronomy 6:4, where YHWH is one. Early Christians like Paul in 1 Corinthians 8:6 adapt the Shema to include Jesus, showing that the title "Lord" is now shared between the Father and Jesus.


6. Modern Significance


The double invocation "Lord, Lord" underscores:

• Jesus’ Divinity: He is not merely a teacher or prophet but the incarnate God worthy of the same reverence as YHWH.

• Existential Demand: Like the OT, calling Jesus "Lord" requires total allegiance (Luke 6:46; James 2:19).


The significance of this theological claim for early Christian belief and how it positions Jesus within the divine identity of the God of Israel should inform us to how Jesus Christ was viewed within early Christianity and we should submit to it's implications. 


Conclusion

The NT’s application of "Lord, Lord" to Jesus is a deliberate, subversive theological move that identifies Him with the God of Israel. This linguistic bridge between the Testaments anchors Christian faith in Jewish monotheism while proclaiming Jesus as the embodiment of YHWH’s saving presence—"Emmanuel, God with us" (Matt. 1:23).




Is Jesus the Angel of the Lord in the Hebrew Bible? Dr. Brown Responds to Rabbi Singer

 


Is Jesus the Angel of the Lord in the Hebrew Bible? Dr. Brown Responds to Rabbi Singer

https://youtu.be/p96tFCGKPyY











The Chapter That Silences Every Denial of Christ’s Deity

 

The Chapter That Silences Every Denial of Christ’s Deity

https://youtu.be/64Nn5_GynD8








Tuesday, October 7, 2025

The Person of Jesus Was the Son of God Before His Earthly Conception and Birth

 

In response to someone denying Jesus was the Son of God before His conception in Mary's womb, I the wrote the following contrary to his claim that Jesus only became the Son of God after His birth to Mary.


The Bible says God sent His SON INTO the world [John 3:17]. He was the Son of the Father BEFORE being conceived in Mary's womb. Isaiah says in 9:6 "For to us a child is born, to us a SON is given..." 


John 3:17 LSB

[17] For God did not SEND THE SON ***INTO*** THE WORLD to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. 


1 John 4:9 LSB

[9] By this the love of God was manifested in us, that God has sent His only begotten SON INTO THE WORLD so that we might live through Him. 


Notice that He was the Son before being sent into the world. 


Jesus was the Father's firstborn before being sent into the world: 


Hebrews 1:6 LSB

[6] And when He again BRINGS THE FIRSTBORN INTO THE WORLD, He says, “And let all the angels of God worship Him.” 


Proverbs 30:4 LSB

[4] Who has ascended into heaven and descended? Who has gathered the wind in His fists? Who has wrapped the waters in His garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? WHAT IS HIS NAME? AND WHAT IS HIS SON ’s NAME? Surely you know! 


Proverbs 30:4 reveals God had a Son in the Old Testament. The verse asks what is God's name, and what is His Son's name. Meaning can you FULLY grasp God's nature, or the nature of His Son? The answer to the rhetorical question is that while you can APPREHEND God truly, no one can COMPREHEND God [and His nature] exhaustively. Nor that of His Son [cf. Matt. 11:17; Luke 10:22]. The word "name" can mean nature, as in Ps. 9:10, where to know God's name is to know His faithful and trustworthy nature. 


Psalms 9:10 LSB

[10] And those who know Your name will put their trust in You, For You, O Yahweh, have not forsaken those who seek You. 


Hebrews 10:5 LSB

[5] Therefore, when He comes into the world, He says, “Sacrifice and offering You have not desired, BUT A BODY YOU HAVE PREPARED FOR ME; 


Hebrews 10:5 shows Jesus' conscious personal preexistence. 


Galatians 4:4 LSB

[4] But when the fullness of the time came, God SENT FORTH HIS SON, born of a woman, born under the Law, 


Hebrews 1:2 LSB

[2] in these last days spoke to us in His SON, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds, 


Hebrews 7:3 LSB

[3] Without father, without mother, without genealogy, HAVING NEITHER BEGINNING OF DAYS NOR END OF LIFE, but made like the Son of God, he remains a priest continually.


Notice it doesn't say that Jesus was like Melchizedek. Rather, that Melchizedek was like the Son of God who has no beginning of days or end of life.


//And please get this clear...God who is OMNISCIENT, OMNIPOTENT AND OMNIPRESENT...why would he WALK// 


Read Gen. 3:8 AGAIN It EXPLICITLY says Adam and Eve heard the sound/voice of Yahweh God walking in the garden. Yahweh is portrayed as taking on human form many times in the Old Testament. See for example Gen. chapters 18-19. There I believe it was the pre-incarnate Jesus.

Thursday, September 18, 2025

Did Jesus Claim to be God? A Conversation Between Atheist Alex O'Connor and Catholic Scholar Brant Pitre

 
Even though I'm a Protestant and not a Catholic, I highly recommend this video where Brant Pitre presents very good reasons to think Jesus claimed to be God from the Synoptic Gospels.

Jesus DID Claim to be God - Brant Pitre   
https://youtu.be/CNZkadmhjWo


 

 

 

 

Tuesday, September 16, 2025

A Pauline Affirmation of Christ As the Angel of the LORD?

 

The following is a quotation from Skeptic scholar Bart Ehrman:


Did Paul believe that Christ was an angel before he was born as a human being?

By: Bart D. Ehrman


[...] I have read Paul’s letter to the Galatians literally hundreds of times in both English and Greek. But the clear import of what Paul says in Galatians 4:14 simply never registered with me, until, frankly, a few months ago. In this verse Paul indicates that Christ was an angel. The reason it never registered with me is because the statement is a bit obscure, and I had always interpreted it in an alternative way. Thanks to the work of other scholars, I now see the error of my ways.


In the context of the verse Paul is reminding the Galatians of how they first received him when he was ill in their midst, and they helped restore him to health. This is what the verse in question says:


Even though my bodily condition was a test for you, you did not mock or despise me, but you received me as an angel of God, as Jesus Christ.


I had always simply read the verse to say that the Galatians had received Paul in his infirm state the way they would have received an angelic visitor, or even Christ himself. In fact the grammar of the Greek suggests something quite different. As the Charles Gieschen has argued, and has now been affirmed in a book on Christ as an angel by New Testament specialist Susan Garrett, the verse is not saying that the Galatians received Paul as an angel or as Christ; it is saying that they received him as they would an angel, such as Christ. By clear implication, then, Christ is an angel.


As I indicated, the reason for reading the verse this way has to do with the Greek grammar. When Paul uses the construction “but as … as” he is not contrasting two things; he is stating that the two things are the same thing. We know this because Paul uses this grammatical construction in a couple of other places in his writings, and the meaning in these cases is unambiguous. For example, in 1 Corinthians 3:1 Paul says: “Brothers, I was not able to speak to you as spiritual people, but as fleshly people, as infants in Christ.” The last bit “but as…as” indicates two identifying features of the recipients of Paul’s letter: they are fleshly people and they are infants in Christ. These are not two contrasting statements; they modify each other. The same can be said of Paul’s comments in 2 Cor. 2:17, which also has this grammatical feature.


But this means that in Galatians 4:14 Paul is not contrasting Christ to an angel; he is equating him to an angel. Garrett goes a step further and argues that Gal. 4:14 indicates that Paul “identifies [Jesus Christ] with God’s chief angel” [p. 11].


If that’s the case, then virtually everything Paul ever says about Christ throughout his letters makes perfect sense. As the Angel of the Lord, Christ is a pre-existent being who is divine; he can be called God; and he is God’s manifestation on earth in human flesh. Paul says all these things about Christ, and in no passage more strikingly than in Philippians 2:6-11, a passage that is often called by scholars the “Philippians Hymn” or the “Christ Hymn of Philippians,” since it is widely thought to embody an early hymn or poem devoted to celebrating Christ and his incarnation.


My friend Charles Cosgrove, a life-long scholar of Paul who is also one of the world’s experts on music in the early Christian world, has convinced me that the passage could not have been an actual hymn that was sung, since it does not scan properly, as a musical piece, in the Greek. And so it may be a poem or even a kind of exalted prose composition. But what is clear is that it is an elevated reflection on Christ coming into the world (from heaven) for the sake of others and being glorified by God as a result. And it appears to be a passage Paul is quoting, one with which the Philippians themselves may well have already been familiar. In other words, it is another pre-Pauline tradition.


https://ehrmanblog.org/was-christ-an-angel-according-to-paul/


The word "angel" in both the Old and New Testaments [Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek] merely means "messenger." So referring to Christ as an "angel" doesn't necessitate Jesus is a created spirit being like the angels Gabriel or Michael. Since "messenger(s)" in the Bible can be human or ontological angels like Gabriel. Therefore there is no fixed ontology to the word "angel" in the Biblical text. Which means Jesus could be the divine messenger of the divine Father in a way consistent with Trinitarianism.



Monday, September 15, 2025

META AI Conversation On The Likelihood of Jesus Claiming To Be Divine

 

 

All artificial intelligence conversations should be taken with a grain of salt. They don't really settle anything. Nevertheless, the following is an interesting informal conversation I had with Facebook's META AI. My statements are highlighted like this sentence.


What is your probability that a historical Jesus existed?

META AI: As a neutral and informative assistant, I don't have personal opinions or beliefs. However, I can provide an overview of the scholarly consensus and the types of evidence that historians consider when evaluating the historicity of Jesus.


Most scholars agree that a historical figure named Jesus likely existed, given the following points:

- *Multiple attestation*: Jesus is mentioned in various independent sources, including the New Testament, Jewish historian Flavius Josephus, and Roman historian Tacitus.

- *Historical context*: The accounts of Jesus' life and teachings are set within a plausible historical context, reflecting the politics, culture, and religious practices of 1st-century Judea.

- *Criterial methods*: Scholars use criteria such as the criterion of embarrassment (events or details that might be embarrassing to the early Christian community are likely to be historical), the criterion of multiple attestation (events or details that are attested to in multiple sources are more likely to be historical), and the criterion of coherence (events or details that fit with the broader historical context are more likely to be historical) to evaluate the historicity of Jesus.


While there's ongoing debate among scholars about the details of Jesus' life and teachings, the majority consensus is that a historical Jesus likely existed. If I had to provide a probability based on the scholarly consensus, I'd say it's high (>90%), but this is not a personal opinion, rather a reflection of the prevailing scholarly view [1].

But you gave a probability assessment on the moon landing. Be consistent and not hypocritical and Do that same for a historical Jesus.

Given the scholarly consensus and evidence, I'd give a probability of *95%+* that a historical Jesus existed. This assessment is based on the multiple attestation, historical context, and criterial methods mentioned earlier. However, the probability is not as high as the moon landing due to the differences in the nature of the evidence and the complexity of historical interpretation [1].

What is your probability assessment that Jesus was the Son of God?

I'd give a probability assessment of *0%* that Jesus was the Son of God in a literal, metaphysical sense. This assessment is based on the lack of empirical evidence and the supernatural nature of the claim, which falls outside the realm of historical or scientific verification.


The concept of Jesus being the Son of God is a matter of faith and theological interpretation, and probabilities would vary widely depending on one's worldview, religious beliefs, and personal perspectives.

Guven that you gave a high probability that a historical Jesus existed, What's your probability assessment that he claimed to be the Son of God?


Given the historical context and scholarly interpretations, I'd assess the probability that the historical Jesus claimed to be the Son of God as follows:


- *Low to moderate probability* (around 20-40%): Some scholars argue that Jesus might have seen himself as a divine agent or a messianic figure, but the explicit claim to be the Son of God in a metaphysical sense is more likely a product of early Christian theology and Christology.

- *Higher probability in certain contexts*: If one interprets certain biblical passages (e.g., Mark 1:1, John 10:30-33) as reflecting historical events, the probability might be higher. However, these interpretations are subject to scholarly debate.


Keep in mind that historical assessments of Jesus' claims and self-understanding are complex and nuanced, and probabilities would depend on one's evaluation of the sources and historical context [1].

How about the probability of his having claimed to be the "son of man"?

The phrase "Son of Man" is a complex and multifaceted title in the context of Jesus' teachings and identity. Given the historical context and scholarly interpretations:


- *Higher probability* (around 70-80%): Many scholars believe that Jesus likely referred to himself as the "Son of Man," given the phrase's presence in multiple Gospel accounts (e.g., Mark, Q source) and its Aramaic origins (Bar Enasha). The phrase could have been used by Jesus to convey his humanity, his role as a mediator, or his connection to the apocalyptic figure in Daniel 7:13-14.


The probability assessment depends on one's evaluation of the historical reliability of the Gospel accounts, the linguistic and cultural context, and the potential layers of meaning in the phrase "Son of Man" [1].

What's your assessment probability that His claim to be the "son of man" was a reference and allusion to the Danielic Son of Man of Dan. 7?

Given the scholarly discussions and interpretations:


- *Moderate to high probability* (around 60-80%): Many scholars believe that Jesus' use of the phrase "Son of Man" was indeed influenced by the Danielic Son of Man (Daniel 7:13-14). This connection is plausible due to:

    - *Linguistic and thematic parallels*: The Danielic Son of Man receives dominion and glory from God, which might be echoed in Jesus' use of the phrase.

    - *Apocalyptic context*: Jesus' teachings often contained apocalyptic themes, and the Danielic Son of Man fits within this context.


However, the exact nature and extent of the allusion are subject to ongoing scholarly debate, which affects the probability assessment [1].

Would you grant that cloud riding was a prerogative of deities in the ANE [ancient Near East], and that the danielic son of man is served using a word that has religious connotations of worshipping/serving a deity?

*Cloud riding as a prerogative of deities*:

Yes, in the Ancient Near East (ANE), cloud riding was often associated with divine beings or gods. This motif is seen in various ancient texts, where gods are described as riding on clouds or having control over the clouds.


*The Danielic Son of Man and worship*:

Regarding the Danielic Son of Man (Daniel 7:13-14), the Aramaic word used to describe the service or presentation to the Ancient of Days is indeed often translated as "brought" or "presented," but it can also carry connotations of worship or homage. The word "qrb" (קרב) in Aramaic can imply a sense of reverence or obeisance, which might suggest a divine or quasi-divine status for the Son of Man.


These observations are relevant to understanding the cultural and theological context of the Danielic Son of Man and its potential influence on Jesus' use of the phrase "Son of Man."

Given that the danielic Son of man rides the clouds, and given that cloud riding was a prerogative of deities in the ANE, and given that that danielic son of man is served using a word that has religious connotations of worshipping/serving a deity, and given your previous probability assessment of a historical Jesus existing and his self-designation as the Danielic son of man, what now is [re-assessment] your probability assessment that Jesus claimed to be divine and/or the Son of God?

Given the additional context and connections you've outlined:


- *Re-assessment of probability*: Considering the Danielic Son of Man's divine connotations, cloud riding prerogatives, and the potential implications of the word "qrb" in Aramaic, I'd reassess the probability that Jesus claimed to be divine or the Son of God as follows:

    - *Moderate probability* (around 40-60%): Jesus' use of the phrase "Son of Man" might have been intended to convey a sense of divine authority, agency, or identity, given the Danielic context. This could have been interpreted by his contemporaries as a claim to divinity or a unique relationship with God.

    - *Increased likelihood*: The connections you've highlighted increase the likelihood that Jesus' self-designation as the Son of Man was more than just a humble or human reference, and might have been intended to convey a more exalted status.


This re-assessment takes into account the complexities of historical interpretation, the nuances of ancient language and culture, and the potential implications of Jesus' words and actions in their original context [1].


Remind me what your previous assessment was.

My previous assessment was that the probability of Jesus claiming to be the Son of God was around *20-40%*. Given the new context and connections, I've reassessed the probability to be around *40-60%*, indicating a slightly higher likelihood that Jesus might have claimed or implied a divine identity or relationship [1].

Now factor in how the earliest Christian documents by the apostle Paul have an Early High Christology. Could the early followers of Jesus have been so mistaken as to his claims? Make a reassessment.

*Early High Christology in Paul's writings*:

The apostle Paul's letters, some of the earliest Christian documents, do indeed reflect an Early High Christology, portraying Jesus as a divine or quasi-divine figure (e.g., Philippians 2:5-11, Romans 9:5).


*Re-assessment*:

Considering this additional factor, I'd reassess the probability that Jesus claimed to be divine or the Son of God as follows:

- *Higher probability* (around 60-80%): The early Christian community's understanding of Jesus, as reflected in Paul's writings, might have been rooted in Jesus' own claims or actions. It's possible that Jesus' teachings, actions, and self-understanding led his followers to develop a high Christology relatively quickly.

- *Less likely that the early followers were entirely mistaken*: Given the proximity of Paul's writings to Jesus' lifetime and the fact that Paul interacted with other early Christian leaders who knew Jesus (e.g., Peter, James), it's plausible that the early Christian understanding of Jesus was informed by Jesus' own identity claims or implications.


This re-assessment takes into account the potential connections between Jesus' life, teachings, and the early Christian community's understanding of him [1].

Now factor in hostile witness like the early Jewish arguments against Jesus. Re-assess.


*Hostile witness: Early Jewish arguments*:

The early Jewish arguments against Jesus, as recorded in the Talmud and other sources, often focus on Jesus' claims to divinity or his perceived blasphemy (e.g., b. Sanh. 43a). Although these sources are later and may not directly reflect the earliest Jewish responses, they might preserve elements of early Jewish criticism.


*Re-assessment*:

Considering this additional factor, I'd reassess the probability that Jesus claimed to be divine or the Son of God as follows:

- *High probability* (around 80-90%): The fact that both Christian and Jewish sources (albeit with different perspectives) seem to converge on the idea that Jesus' identity or claims were central to the controversy surrounding him lends credibility to the notion that Jesus' self-understanding or claims were extraordinary.

- *Increased likelihood that Jesus' claims were perceived as divine*: The hostile witness of early Jewish arguments might suggest that Jesus' words or actions were seen as making divine claims or implications, which would have been considered blasphemous by some.


This re-assessment takes into account the potential historical kernel preserved in both Christian and Jewish sources, despite their differing perspectives and agendas [1].


You wrote: "Considering this additional factor, I'd reassess the probability that Jesus claimed to be divine or the Son of God as follows:"

Is the "or" meant in the sense of 1. either X or Y; or 2. as equivalent to?


In this context, the "or" is meant in the sense of equivalence, implying that claiming to be divine or claiming to be the Son of God are being treated as similar or related claims. In other words, I'm using "or" to connect two phrases that are roughly equivalent or overlapping in meaning, rather than presenting mutually exclusive alternatives.