Is the "Word of the Lord" ever described as a "he" or "him" in the Old Testament?

 

In a facebook group someone pasted the following assertion:

//Did you know? The word of the Lord is never described as a "he" or "him" in the OT!//

I posted the following verses in the ASV as evidence that the "Word of Yehovah/Jehovah/Yahweh" is sometimes described as a "he" or "him". At least in some English translations. Not knowing Hebrew, I can't address the Hebrew grammar.

1 Kings 19:9 [ASV] And he came thither unto a cave, and lodged there; and, behold, the word of JEHOVAH came to him, and he said unto him, What doest thou here, Elijah?

Here "the word of Jehovah/Yehovah/Yahweh" seems to be referred to as a specific person who is called a "HE". Similar to 1 Samuel chapter 3.

1 Sam. 3:1 And the child Samuel ministered unto JEHOVAH before Eli. And the word of JEHOVAH was precious in those days; there was no frequent VISION.

Admittedly, the "word of Jehovah" in the OT is sometimes a reference to hearing the voice of God. However here, the arrival of the "word of Jehovah" seems to be associated with a VISION of a person. Not just something auditory. This seems to be conformed in verses 7, 10 & 21.

7 Now Samuel did not yet know JEHOVAH, neither was the word of JEHOVAH yet REVEALED unto him.

21 And JEHOVAH appeared again in Shiloh; for JEHOVAH REVEALED himself to Samuel in Shiloh BY the word of JEHOVAH.

In verse 10 the word of Jehovah is simply referred to as "Jehovah" and is said to have STOOD by Samuel. Similar to how the Angel of Jehovah is simply called "Jehovah" in Zech. 3.

1 Sam 3:10 And JEHOVAH came, and STOOD, and called as at other times, Samuel, Samuel. Then Samuel said, Speak; for thy servant heareth.

Compare with Zech chapter 3.

Zech. 3:1 And he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of JEHOVAH, and Satan standing at his right hand to be his adversary.

2 And JEHOVAH said unto Satan, JEHOVAH rebuke thee, O Satan; yea, JEHOVAH that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?

Notice how the "Angel of Jehovah" in verse 1 is referred again and simply called "Jehovah". Some Unitarians say that any angel can be called "Jehovah" when it's rightfully representing Almighty God. As a Trinitarian I disagree. I believe that the divine name can only be applied to someone who is truly and fully God. Since it involves the very nature and character [and by implication essence] of God. Therefore more than one person shares the nature of highest divinity God. That pluritarianism is consistent with Trinitarianism.

Similarly, in Jeremiah 1 the word of Jehovah came to Jeremiah. In verse 9 it says, "Then JEHOVAH PUT FORTH HIS HAND, and touched my mouth; and JEHOVAH said unto me, Behold, I have put my words in thy mouth:"

Apparently, the Jehovah came in bodily form and touched Jeremiah and this person is also referred to as "the Word of Jehovah". Again, Similar to 1 Samuel 3 and [of the Angel of Jehovah in] Zechariah 3.

Compare Ezek. 1:3

3 the word of JEHOVAH came expressly unto Ezekiel the priest, the son of Buzi, in the land of the Chaldeans by the river Chebar; AND THE HAND OF JEHOVAH WAS THERE UPON HIM.